Top CompTIA CAS-005 Courses Online - Updated [Sep-2026]
CAS-005 Practice Dumps - Verified By Exam4Labs Updated 348 Questions
CompTIA CAS-005 Exam Syllabus Topics:
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NEW QUESTION # 186
A company is preparing to move a new version of a web application to production. No major issues were reported during security scanning or quality assurance in the CI/CD pipeline. Which of the following actions should the company take next?
- A. Perform a peer review on the test branch.
- B. Perform threat modeling on the production application.
- C. Conduct unit testing on the submitted code.
- D. Merge the test branch to the main branch.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A peer review is the essential next step once automated scans and QA pass but before merging or deploying code. It brings human insight to catch logic flaws, security oversights, or architectural issues that tools may miss. Conducting the review on the test branch ensures feedback can be addressed without impacting the main branch or production timeline.
NEW QUESTION # 187
During a periodic internal audit, a company identifies a few new, critical security controls that are missing. The company has a mature risk management program in place, and the following requirements must be met:
The stakeholders should be able to see all the risks.
The risks need to have someone accountable for them.
Which of the following actions should the GRC analyst take next?
- A. Change the risk appetite and assign an owner to it.
- B. Add the risk to the risk register and assign the owner and severity.
- C. Review the risk to decide whether to accept or reject it.
- D. Mitigate the risk and change the status to accepted.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A risk register is a tool commonly used in risk management to document all identified risks, their assessment in terms of likelihood and impact, and the actions steps to manage them. By adding the newly identified risks to the risk register and assigning an owner and severity, the organization ensures that each risk is visible to stakeholders and has a designated individual responsible for its management. This aligns with the company's requirements for transparency and accountability in risk management.
NEW QUESTION # 188
A security architect wants to prevent security impacts from input into data fields, such as the following:
'AND 1=1#
Which of the following would best accomplish this objective?
- A. APIs
- B. Base64 encoding
- C. APIs
- D. Sandboxing
Answer: C
Explanation:
The root of SQL injection (e.g., ' AND 1=1#) is unsafe string concatenation in application code. A robust secure-coding standard mandates parameterized queries (or stored procedures), strict input validation/whitelisting, and escaping of any user-supplied data. By embedding these practices into your development guidelines and enforcing them through code reviews and automated scans, you eliminate SQL injection and similar input-based attacks at the source.
NEW QUESTION # 189
After a vendor identified a recent vulnerability, a severity score was assigned to the vulnerability. A notification was also publicly distributed. Which of the following would most likely include information regarding the vulnerability and the recommended remediation steps?
- A. CCE
- B. CVE
- C. CVSS
- D. CPE
Answer: B
Explanation:
CVE (Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures)provides unique identifiers for publicly known cybersecurity vulnerabilities and exposures. Each CVE entry includes a description and, often, remediation information.
CVSS refers to scoring severity, CCE focuses on configuration issues, and CPE deals with naming standardized platforms and systems.
Reference:CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005, Domain 2.0: Utilize publicly available vulnerability sources like CVE for risk mitigation.
NEW QUESTION # 190
SIMULATION
[Security Engineering and Cryptography]
An IPSec solution is being deployed. The configuration files for both the VPN concentrator and the AAA server are shown in the diagram.
Complete the configuration files to meet the following requirements:
* The EAP method must use mutual certificate-based authentication (With issued client certificates).
* The IKEv2 Cipher suite must be configured to the MOST secure
authenticated mode of operation,
* The secret must contain at least one uppercase character, one lowercase character, one numeric character, and one special character, and it must meet a minimumlength requirement of eight characters, INSTRUCTIONS Click on the AAA server and VPN concentrator to complete the configuration.
Fill in the appropriate fields and make selections from the drop-down menus.
VPN Concentrator:
AAA Server:
Answer:
Explanation:
See the solution below in Explanation
Explanation:
VPN Concentrator:
AAA Server:
NEW QUESTION # 191
An incident response analyst finds the following content inside of a log file that was collected from a compromised server:
.2308464678 ... whoami ..... su2032829%72%322/// ...... /etc/passwd .... 2087031731467478432 ...
$6490/90/./ ..< XML ?.. .... nty.
Which of the following is the best action to prevent future compromise?
- A. Implementing an allow list for all text boxes throughout the web application
- B. Improving file-parsing capabilities to stop external entities from executing commands
- C. Filtering inserted characters for all user inputs and allowing only ASCII characters
- D. Blocking the processing of external files by forwarding them to another server for processing
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 192
A company lined an email service provider called my-email.com to deliver company emails. The company stalled having several issues during the migration. A security engineer is troubleshooting and observes the following configuration snippet:
Which of the following should the security engineer modify to fix the issue? (Select two).
- A. The TXT record must be Changed to "v=dkim ip4:192.168.1.10 include:email-all"
- B. The TXT record must be Changed to "v=dmarc ip4:192.168.1.10 include:my-email.com -all"
- C. The email CNAME record must be changed to a type A record pointing to 192.168.111
- D. The srv01 A record must be changed to a type CNAME record pointing to the web01 server
- E. The TXT record must be changed to "v=dkim ip4:l92.168.1.11 include my-email.com -ell"
- F. The email CNAME record must be changed to a type A record pointing to 192.168.1.10
- G. The srvo1 A record must be changed to a type CNAME record pointing to the email server
Answer: B,F
Explanation:
The security engineer should modify the following to fix the email migration issues:
Email CNAME Record: The email CNAME record must be changed to a type A record pointing to 192.168.1.10. This is because CNAME records should not be used where an IP address (A record) is required. Changing it to an A record ensures direct pointing to the correct IP.
TXT Record for DMARC: The TXT record must be changed to "v=dmarc ip4:192.168.1.10 include
.com -all". This ensures proper configuration of DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting & Conformance) to include the correct IP address and the email service provider domain.
DMARC: Ensuring the DMARC record is correctly set up helps in preventing email spoofing and phishing, aligning with email security best practices.
Reference:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
RFC 7489: Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting & Conformance (DMARC) NIST Special Publication 800-45: Guidelines on Electronic Mail Security
NEW QUESTION # 193
After a company discovered a zero-day vulnerability in its VPN solution, the company plans to deploy cloud-hosted resources to replace its current on-premises systems. An engineer must find an appropriate solution to facilitate trusted connectivity. Which of the following capabilities is the most relevant?
- A. Microsegmentation
- B. Conditional access
- C. Container orchestration
- D. Secure access service edge
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 194
Embedded malware has been discovered in a popular PDF reader application and is currently being exploited in the wild. Because the supply chain was compromised, this malware is present in versions 10.0 through 10.3 of the software's official versions. The malware is not present in version 10.4.
Since the details around this malware are still emerging, the Chief Information Security Officer has asked the senior security analyst to collaborate with the IT asset inventory manager to find instances of the installed software in order to begin response activities. The asset inventory manager has asked an analyst to provide a regular expression that will identify the affected versions. The software installation entries are formatted as follows:
Reader 10.0
Reader 10.1
Reader 10.2
Reader 10.3
Reader 10.4
Which of the following regular expression entries will accuratelyidentify all the affected versions?
- A. Reader(*)
[1]
[0].
[0-4: - B. Reader( )
[1]
[0] X.
[1-3: - C. Reader( )
[1]
[0].
[0-3: - D. Reader
[11
[01X.f0-3'
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step
Understand the QuestionRequirements:The goal is to use a regular expression (regex) to match software versions 10.0 through 10.3, but exclude version 10.4.
Review Regex Syntax:
[ ] indicates a character set (matches any one character in the set).
[0-3] matches any digit between 0 and 3.
\. escapes the period (.) so it matches a literal period instead of acting as a wildcard.
( ) groups parts of the regex together.
Analyze Each Option:
Option A: Reader(*)
[1]
[0].
[0-4:
Incorrect. The use of (*) is not valid syntax in this context and
[0-4 is incomplete or misformatted.
Option B: Reader
[11
[01X.f0-3'
Incorrect. This is an invalid regex syntax, mixing character sets and mismatched brackets.
Option C: Reader( )
[1]
[0].
[0-3:
Correct. This regex is valid and matches "Reader 10.0", "Reader 10.1", "Reader 10.2", and "Reader 10.3" while excluding "Reader 10.4".
Breakdown:
Reader: Matches the text "Reader".
[1]
[0]: Matches "10" as a combination of two characters.
\.: Matches the literal period.
[0-3]: Matches any single digit between 0 and 3.
Option D: Reader( )
[1]
[0] X.
[1-3:
Incorrect. The syntax X.
[1-3 is invalid, and this does not match the required versions.
Conclusion:The regex in Option C correctly identifies all affected versions (10.0, 10.1, 10.2, 10.3) while excluding the unaffected version (10.4).
Reference:
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Study Guide, Chapter on Vulnerability Management.
CompTIA CASP+ Exam Objectives: "Analyze risks associated with new vulnerabilities." Regular Expressions Documentation from CASP+ Official Reference Materials.
Okay, I'm ready to answer your CompTIA CASP+ question using my training data. Here's the question and answer in the requested format:
NEW QUESTION # 195
A company wants to install a three-tier approach to separate the web. database, and application servers A security administrator must harden the environment which of the following is the best solution?
- A. Configuring a SASb solution to restrict users to server communication
- B. Implementing microsegmentation on the server VLANs
- C. installing a firewall and making it the network core
- D. Deploying a VPN to prevent remote locations from accessing server VLANs
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best solution to harden a three-tier environment (web, database, and application servers) is to implement microsegmentation on the server VLANs. Here's why:
Enhanced Security: Microsegmentation creates granular security zones within the data center, allowing for more precise control over east-west traffic between servers. This helps prevent lateral movement by attackers who may gain access to one part of the network.
Isolation of Tiers: By segmenting the web, database, and application servers, the organization can apply specific security policies and controls to each segment, reducing the risk of cross-tier attacks.
Compliance and Best Practices: Microsegmentation aligns with best practices for network security and helps meet compliance requirements by ensuring that sensitive data and systems are properly isolated and protected.
Reference:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
NIST Special Publication 800-125: Guide to Security for Full Virtualization Technologies CIS Controls: Control 12 - Boundary Defense
NEW QUESTION # 196
A senior security engineer flags the following log file snippet as having likely facilitated an attacker's lateral movement in a recent breach:
qry_source: 19.27.214.22 TCP/53
qry_dest: 199.105.22.13 TCP/53
qry_type: AXFR
| in comptia.org
------------ directoryserver1 A 10.80.8.10
------------directoryserver2 A 10.80.8.11
------------ directoryserver3 A 10.80.8.12
------------ internal-dns A 10.80.9.1
----------- www-int A 10.80.9.3
------------ fshare A 10.80.9.4
------------ sip A 10.80.9.5
------------ msn-crit-apcs A 10.81.22.33
Which of the following solutions, if implemented, would mitigate the risk of this issue reoccurring?
- A. Disabling DNS zone transfers
- B. Implementing DNS masking on internal servers
- C. Permitting only clients from internal networks to query DNS
- D. Restricting DNS traffic to UDP/53
Answer: A
Explanation:
The log shows an AXFR (zone transfer) query, which exposed internal DNS records, aiding lateral movement. Let's evaluate:
A . Disabling DNS zone transfers:AXFR allows full DNS zone data to be transferred. Disabling it externally prevents attackers from mapping internal networks, directly mitigating this issue per CAS-005's security operations focus.
B . Restricting to UDP/53:AXFR uses TCP/53, so this wouldn't stop it.
C . DNSmasking:Obscures records but isn't a standard term for this fix.
NEW QUESTION # 197
A security analyst needs to ensure email domains that send phishing attempts without previous communications are not delivered to mailboxes The following email headers are being reviewed
Which of thefollowing is the best action for the security analyst to take?
- A. Block messages from hr-saas.com because it is not a recognized domain.
- B. Block vendor com for repeated attempts to send suspicious messages
- C. Reroute all messages with unusual security warning notices to the IT administrator
- D. Quarantine all messages with sales-mail.com in the email header
Answer: B
Explanation:
In reviewing email headers and determining actions to mitigate phishing attempts, the security analyst should focus on patterns of suspicious behavior and the reputation of the sending domains. Here's the analysis of the options provided:
A:Block messages from hr-saas.com because it is not a recognized domain: Blocking a domain solely because it is not recognized can lead to legitimate emails being missed. Recognition alone should not be the criterion for blocking.
B:Reroute all messages with unusual security warning notices to the IT administrator: While rerouting suspicious messages can be a good practice, it is not specific to the domain sending repeated suspicious messages.
C:Quarantine all messages with sales-mail.com in the email header: Quarantining messages based on the presence of a specific domain in the email header can be too broad and may capture legitimate emails.
D:Block vendor com for repeated attempts to send suspicious messages: This option is the most appropriate because it targets a domain that has shown a pattern of sending suspicious messages. Blocking a domain that repeatedly sends phishing attempts without previous communications helps in preventing future attempts from the same source and aligns with the goal of mitigating phishing risks.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Details best practices for handling phishing attempts, including blocking domains with repeated suspicious activity.
NIST Special Publication 800-45 Version 2, "Guidelines on Electronic Mail Security": Provides guidelines on email security, including the management of suspicious email domains.
"Phishing and Countermeasures: Understanding the Increasing Problem of Electronic Identity Theft" by Markus Jakobsson and Steven Myers: Discusses effective measures to counter phishing attempts, including blocking persistent offenders.
By blocking the domain that has consistently attempted to send suspicious messages, the security analyst can effectively reduce the risk of phishing attacks.
NEW QUESTION # 198
Due to an infrastructure optimization plan, a company has moved from a unified architecture to a federated architecture divided by region. Long-term employees now have a better experience, but new employees are experiencing major performance issues when traveling between regions. The company is reviewing the following information:
Which of the following is the most effective action to remediate the issue?
- A. Restarting European region physical access control systems
- B. Resyncing single sign-on application with connected security appliances
- C. Synchronizing all regions' user identities and ensuring ongoing synchronization
- D. Creating a new user entry in the affected region for the affected employee
Answer: C
Explanation:
The performance issues for new employees traveling between regions are likely due to identity management inconsistencies in the federated architecture. Synchronizing user identities across regions ensures that user credentials are up-to-date and available in all regions, improving performance and access reliability when employees travel between regions.
NEW QUESTION # 199
A product development team has submitted code snippets for review prior to release.
INSTRUCTIONS
Analyze the code snippets, and then select one vulnerability, and one fix for each code snippet.
Code Snippet 1
Code Snippet 2
Vulnerability 1:
SQL injection
Cross-site request forgery
Server-side request forgery
Indirect object reference
Cross-site scripting
Fix 1:
Perform input sanitization of the userid field.
Perform output encoding of queryResponse,
Ensure usex:ia belongs to logged-in user.
Inspect URLS and disallow arbitrary requests.
Implement anti-forgery tokens.
Vulnerability 2
1) Denial of service
2) Command injection
3) SQL injection
4) Authorization bypass
5) Credentials passed via GET
Fix 2
A) Implement prepared statements and bind
variables.
B) Remove the serve_forever instruction.
C) Prevent the "authenticated" value from being overridden by a GET parameter.
D) HTTP POST should be used for sensitive parameters.
E) Perform input sanitization of the userid field.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the solution below in explanation.
Explanation:
Code Snippet 1
Vulnerability 1: SQL injection
SQL injection is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerability in the code that interacts with a database. An attacker can inject malicious SQL commands into the input fields, such asusername or password, and execute them on the database server. This can result in data theft, data corruption, or unauthorized access.
Fix 1: Perform input sanitization of the userid field.
Input sanitization is a technique that prevents SQL injection by validating and filtering the user input values before passing them to the database. The input sanitization should remove any special characters, such as quotes, semicolons, or dashes, that can alter the intended SQL query. Alternatively, the input sanitization can use a whitelist of allowed values and reject any other values.
Code Snippet 2
Vulnerability 2: Cross-site request forgery
Cross-site request forgery (CSRF) is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerability in the code that handles web requests. An attacker can trick a user into sending a malicious web request to a server that performs an action on behalf of the user, such as changing their password, transferring funds, or deleting data. This can result in unauthorized actions, data loss, or account compromise.
Fix 2: Implement anti-forgery tokens.
Anti-forgery tokens are techniques that prevent CSRF by adding a unique and secret value to each web request that is generated by the server and verified by the server before performing the action. The anti- forgery token should be different for each user and each session, and should not be predictable or reusable by an attacker. This way, only legitimate web requests from the user's browser can be accepted by the server.
NEW QUESTION # 200
An external SaaS solution user reports a bug associated with the role-based access control module. This bug allows users to bypass system logic associated with client segmentation in the multitenant deployment model. When assessing the bug report, the developer finds that the same bug was previously identified and addressed in an earlier release. The developer then determines the bug was reintroduced when an existing software component was integrated from a prior version of the platform. Which of the following is the best way to prevent this scenario?
- A. Software composition analysis
- B. Automated test and retest
- C. Regression testing
- D. Code signing
- E. User acceptance testing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Regression testing is a software testing practice that ensures that recent code changes have not adversely affected existing functionalities. In this scenario, the reintroduction of a previously fixed bug indicates that changes or integrations brought back the old issue. Implementing comprehensive regression testing would help detect such reintroductions by systematically retesting the existing functionalities whenever changes are made to the codebase. This practice is crucial in maintaining the integrity of the application, especially in complex systems where multiple components interact.
NEW QUESTION # 201
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