Latest Success Metrics For Actual 350-701 Exam 2025 Realistic Dumps
Updated 350-701 Dumps Questions For Cisco Exam
What is the cost of Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701)
- Length of Examination: 90 minutes
- Format: Multiple choices, multiple answers
- Number of Questions: 90-105
- Passing Score: 70%
Cisco 350-701 exam is a valuable certification for security professionals who want to enhance their knowledge and skills in implementing and managing Cisco's security solutions. With the growing number of cyber threats, organizations need professionals who can design, implement, and manage security solutions to protect their network infrastructure. Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies certification provides candidates with the skills and knowledge to meet the demands of organizations looking for experienced security professionals.
NEW QUESTION # 133
Refer to the traffic storm on the network, two interfaces were error-disabled and both interfaces send SNMP traps. Which two actions must be taken to ensure that interfaces are put back into service? (Choose two)
- A. Use EEM to have the ports return to service automatically in less than 300 seconds.
- B. Enable the snmp-server enable traps command and wait 300 seconds.
- C. Ensure that interfaces are configured with the error-disable detection and recovery feature.
- D. Have Cisco Prime issue an SNMP set command to re-enable the ports after the preconfigured interval.
- E. Enter the shutdown and no shutdown commands on the interfaces.
Answer: C,E
NEW QUESTION # 134
Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement about the authentication protocol used in the configuration is true?
- A. The authentication request contains only a username
- B. The authentication request contains only a password
- C. There are separate authentication and authorization request packets
- D. The authentication and authorization requests are grouped in a single packet
Answer: D
Explanation:
This command uses RADIUS which combines authentication and authorization in one function (packet).
NEW QUESTION # 135
Drag and drop the solutions from the left onto the solution's benefits on the right.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 136
Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement about the authentication protocol used in the configuration is true
- A. The authentication request contains only a username
- B. The authentication request contains only a password
- C. There are separate authentication and authorization request packets
- D. The authentication and authorization requests are grouped in a single packet
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 137
What is a feature of Cisco NetFlow Secure Event Logging for Cisco ASAs?
- A. Multiple NetFlow collectors are supported
- B. Secure NetFlow connections are optimized for Cisco Prime Infrastructure
- C. Advanced NetFlow v9 templates and legacy v5 formatting are supported
- D. Flow-create events are delayed
Answer: D
Explanation:
The ASA and ASASM implementations of NetFlow Secure Event Logging (NSEL) provide the following major functions: ... - Delays the export of flow-create events. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa92/configuration/general/asa-general-cli/ monitor-nsel.pdf
...
- Delays the export of flow-create events.
The ASA and ASASM implementations of NetFlow Secure Event Logging (NSEL) provide the following major functions: ... - Delays the export of flow-create events. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa92/configuration/general/asa-general-cli/ monitor-nsel.pdf
NEW QUESTION # 138
What is a benefit of using a multifactor authentication strategy?
- A. lt protects data by enabling the use of a second validation of identity.
- B. It provides secure remote access for applications.
- C. It provides an easy, single sign-on experience against multiple applications
- D. It provides visibility into devices to establish device trust.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 139
In which two ways does Easy Connect help control network access when used with Cisco TrustSec? (Choose two)
- A. It allows for the assignment of Security Group Tags and does not require 802.1x to be configured on the switch or the endpoint.
- B. It allows for managed endpoints that authenticate to AD to be mapped to Security Groups (PassiveID).
- C. It integrates with third-party products to provide better visibility throughout the network.
- D. It allows multiple security products to share information and work together to enhance security posture in the network.
- E. It creates a dashboard in Cisco ISE that provides full visibility of all connected endpoints.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Explanation Explanation Easy Connect simplifies network access control and segmentation by allowing the assignment of Security Group Tags to endpoints without requiring 802.1X on those endpoints, whether using wired or wireless connectivity. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/solutions/collateral/enterprise-networks/trustsec/trustsec-witheasy-connect-configuration-guide.pdf Explanation Easy Connect simplifies network access control and segmentation by allowing the assignment of Security Group Tags to endpoints without requiring 802.1X on those endpoints, whether using wired or wireless connectivity.
Explanation Explanation Easy Connect simplifies network access control and segmentation by allowing the assignment of Security Group Tags to endpoints without requiring 802.1X on those endpoints, whether using wired or wireless connectivity. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/solutions/collateral/enterprise-networks/trustsec/trustsec-witheasy-connect-configuration-guide.pdf
NEW QUESTION # 140
An engineer is configuring AMP for endpoints and wants to block certain files from executing.
Which outbreak control method is used to accomplish this task?
- A. device flow correlation
- B. simple detections
- C. advanced custom detections
- D. application blocking list
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 141
What does the Cloudlock Apps Firewall do to mitigate security concerns from an application perspective?
- A. It discovers and controls cloud apps that are connected to a company's corporate environment.
- B. It deletes any application that does not belong in the network.
- C. It allows the administrator to quarantine malicious files so that the application can function, just not maliciously.
- D. It sends the application information to an administrator to act on.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 142
Which flaw does an attacker leverage when exploiting SQL injection vulnerabilities?
- A. web page images
- B. database
- C. Linux and Windows operating systems
- D. user input validation in a web page or web application
Answer: D
Explanation:
SQL injection usually occurs when you ask a user for input, like their username/userid, but the user gives ("injects") you an SQL statement that you will unknowingly run on your database. For example:
Look at the following example, which creates a SELECT statement by adding a variable (txtUserId) to a select string. The variable is fetched from user input (getRequestString):
txtUserId = getRequestString("UserId");
txtSQL = "SELECT * FROM Users WHERE UserId = " + txtUserId;
If user enter something like this: "100 OR 1=1" then the SzQL statement will look like this:
SELECT * FROM Users WHERE UserId = 100 OR 1=1;
The SQL above is valid and will return ALL rows from the "Users" table, since OR 1=1 is always TRUE. A hacker might get access to all the user names and passwords in this database.
NEW QUESTION # 143
Which Cisco solution does Cisco Umbrella integrate with to determine if a URL is malicious?
- A. Talos
- B. DynDNS
- C. AMP
- D. AnyConnect
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 144
Refer to the exhibit,
which command results in these messages when attempting to troubleshoot an iPsec VPN connection?
- A. debug crypto Ipsec
- B. debug crypto isakmp
- C. debug crypto ipsec endpoint
- D. debug crypto isakmp connection
Answer: B
Explanation:
The command that results in these messages when attempting to troubleshoot an iPsec VPN connection is debug crypto isakmp. This command displays debug information about the Internet Key Exchange (IKE) protocol, which is used to establish security associations (SAs) for IPsec VPNs. The messages in the exhibit show various steps and statuses of the IKE negotiation process, such as creating and deleting peer structures, receiving and sending packets, and checking the compatibility of the security policies and proposals. The other commands are either invalid (debug crypto ipsec endpoint and debug crypto isakmp connection) or display different information (debug crypto ipsec shows the details of the IPsec encryption and decryption operations). References:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/training/training-services/courses/implemen
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security-vpn/ipsec-negotiation-ike-protocols/5409-ipsec-debug-00.h
NEW QUESTION # 145
How does Cisco Secure Endpoint provide next-generation protection?
- A. It encrypts data on user endpoints to protect against ransomware.
- B. It integrates with Cisco FTD devices.
- C. It leverages an endpoint protection platform and endpoint detection and response.
- D. It utilizes Cisco pxGrid, which allows Secure Endpoint to pull threat feeds from threat intelligence centers.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 146
An engineer has been tasked with implementing a solution that can be leveraged for securing the cloud users, data, and applications. There is a requirement to use the Cisco cloud native CASB and cloud cybersecurity platform. What should be used to meet these requirements?
- A. Cisco Cloudlock
- B. Cisco Cloud Email Security
- C. Cisco NGFW
- D. Cisco Umbrella
Answer: A
Explanation:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/security/cloud-web-security/at-a-glance-c45-
738565.pdf
NEW QUESTION # 147
Which function is performed by certificate authorities but is a limitation of registration authorities?
- A. CRL publishing
- B. certificate re-enrollment
- C. accepts enrollment requests
- D. verifying user identity
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 148
Which public cloud provider supports the Cisco Next Generation Firewall Virtual?
- A. Amazon Web Services
- B. Red Hat Enterprise Visualization
- C. VMware ESXi
- D. Google Cloud Platform
Answer: A
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 149
Which two actions does the Cisco Identity Services Engine posture module provide that ensures endpoint security? (Choose two.)
- A. Patch management remediation is performed.
- B. The latest antivirus updates are applied before access is allowed.
- C. Assignments to endpoint groups are made dynamically, based on endpoint attributes.
- D. A centralized management solution is deployed.
- E. Endpoint supplicant configuration is deployed.
Answer: A,C
NEW QUESTION # 150
An organization is receiving SPAM emails from a known malicious domain. What must be configured in order to prevent the session during the initial TCP communication?
- A. Configure the Cisco ESA to drop the malicious emails
- B. Configure policies to quarantine malicious emails
- C. Configure policies to stop and reject communication
- D. Configure the Cisco ESA to reset the TCP connection
Answer: C
Explanation:
The best way to prevent the session during the initial TCP communication is to configure policies to stop and reject communication from the known malicious domain. This will prevent the ESA from accepting any messages from that domain and send a negative SMTP response code back to the sender. This will also save the ESA's resources and bandwidth, as it will not have to process or store the malicious emails. This can be done by creating a sender group in the Host Access Table (HAT) that matches the malicious domain and setting the mail flow policy to "Reject" or "Throttle". Alternatively, a message filter can be created that checks the envelope sender against the malicious domain and applies the "stop_connection" or "reject_connection" action12.
The other options are not as effective as stopping and rejecting the communication at the TCP level.
Configuring the Cisco ESA to drop the malicious emails (option A) will still allow the ESA to accept the messages and then silently discard them, which will consume the ESA's resources and bandwidth, and also not notify the sender of the rejection. Configuring policies to quarantine malicious emails (option B) will also require the ESA to accept and store the messages, which will take up disk space and require manual or automated management of the quarantine. Configuring the Cisco ESA to reset the TCP connection (option D) will abruptly terminate the connection without sending a proper SMTP response code, which may cause the sender to retry the delivery and generate more traffic. Resetting the TCP connection is also considered a less polite and less compliant way of rejecting messages than sending a negative SMTP response code34. References: 1: How to Block a Sender Domain on the Email Security Appliance 2: Message Filters on the Cisco Email Security Appliance 3: How to Configure the Cisco Email Security Appliance to Reject or Drop Messages 4: Cisco Email Security Appliance User Guide - Configuring Mail Policies
NEW QUESTION # 151
Which two deployment model configurations are supported for Cisco FTDv in AWS? (Choose two.)
- A. . Cisco FTDv configured in routed mode and managed by a physical FMC appliance on premises
- B. Cisco FTDv configured in routed mode and IPv6 configured
- C. Cisco FTDv with two management interfaces and one traffic interface configured
- D. Cisco FTDv configured in routed mode and managed by an FMCv installed in AWS
- E. Cisco FTDv with one management interface and two traffic interfaces configured
Answer: A,D
NEW QUESTION # 152
What are two Detection and Analytics Engines of Cognitive Threat Analytics? (Choose two)
- A. snort
- B. URL categorization
- C. data exfiltration
- D. intelligent proxy
- E. command and control communication
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
Cisco Cognitive Threat Analytics helps you quickly detect and respond to sophisticated, clandestine attacks that are already under way or are attempting to establish a presence within your environment. The solution automatically identifies and investigates suspicious or malicious web-based traffic. It identifies both potential and confirmed threats, allowing you to quickly remediate the infection and reduce the scope and damage of an attack, whether it's a known threat campaign that has spread across multiple organizations or a unique threat you've never seen before.
Detection and analytics features provided in Cognitive Threat Analytics are shown below:
+ Data exfiltration: Cognitive Threat Analytics uses statistical modeling of an organization's network to identify anomalous web traffic and pinpoint the exfiltration of sensitive data. It recognizes data exfiltration even in HTTPS-encoded traffic, without any need for you to decrypt transferred content
+ Command-and-control (C2) communication: Cognitive Threat Analytics combines a wide range of data, ranging from statistics collected on an Internet-wide level to host-specific local anomaly scores. Combining these indicators inside the statistical detection algorithms allows us to distinguish C2 communication from benign traffic and from other malicious activities. Cognitive Threat Analytics recognizes C2 even in HTTPSencoded or anonymous traffic, including Tor, without any need to decrypt transferred content, detecting a broad range of threats
...
Cisco Cognitive Threat Analytics helps you quickly detect and respond to sophisticated, clandestine attacks that are already under way or are attempting to establish a presence within your environment. The solution automatically identifies and investigates suspicious or malicious web-based traffic. It identifies both potential and confirmed threats, allowing you to quickly remediate the infection and reduce the scope and damage of an attack, whether it's a known threat campaign that has spread across multiple organizations or a unique threat you've never seen before.
Detection and analytics features provided in Cognitive Threat Analytics are shown below:
+ Data exfiltration: Cognitive Threat Analytics uses statistical modeling of an organization's network to identify anomalous web traffic and pinpoint the exfiltration of sensitive data. It recognizes data exfiltration even in HTTPS-encoded traffic, without any need for you to decrypt transferred content
+ Command-and-control (C2) communication: Cognitive Threat Analytics combines a wide range of data, ranging from statistics collected on an Internet-wide level to host-specific local anomaly scores. Combining these indicators inside the statistical detection algorithms allows us to distinguish C2 communication from benign traffic and from other malicious activities. Cognitive Threat Analytics recognizes C2 even in HTTPSencoded or anonymous traffic, including Tor, without any need to decrypt transferred content, detecting a broad range of threats
...
Reference:
Cisco Cognitive Threat Analytics helps you quickly detect and respond to sophisticated, clandestine attacks that are already under way or are attempting to establish a presence within your environment. The solution automatically identifies and investigates suspicious or malicious web-based traffic. It identifies both potential and confirmed threats, allowing you to quickly remediate the infection and reduce the scope and damage of an attack, whether it's a known threat campaign that has spread across multiple organizations or a unique threat you've never seen before.
Detection and analytics features provided in Cognitive Threat Analytics are shown below:
+ Data exfiltration: Cognitive Threat Analytics uses statistical modeling of an organization's network to identify anomalous web traffic and pinpoint the exfiltration of sensitive data. It recognizes data exfiltration even in HTTPS-encoded traffic, without any need for you to decrypt transferred content
+ Command-and-control (C2) communication: Cognitive Threat Analytics combines a wide range of data, ranging from statistics collected on an Internet-wide level to host-specific local anomaly scores. Combining these indicators inside the statistical detection algorithms allows us to distinguish C2 communication from benign traffic and from other malicious activities. Cognitive Threat Analytics recognizes C2 even in HTTPSencoded or anonymous traffic, including Tor, without any need to decrypt transferred content, detecting a broad range of threats
...
NEW QUESTION # 153
Which feature within Cisco Umbrella allows for the ability to inspect secure HTTP traffic?
- A. Destination Lists
- B. File Analysis
- C. SSL Decryption
- D. SafeSearch
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 154
Which cloud service offering allows customers to access a web application that is being hosted, managed, and maintained by a cloud service provider?
- A. PaaS
- B. SaaS
- C. IaaS
- D. IaC
Answer: B
Explanation:
SaaS stands for Software as a Service, which is a cloud service offering that allows customers to access a web application that is being hosted, managed, and maintained by a cloud service provider. SaaS applications are typically accessed through a web browser or a mobile app, and the customers do not need to install, update, or maintain any software or hardware on their own. SaaS applications can provide various benefits, such as lower upfront costs, faster deployment, scalability, and automatic updates. Some examples of SaaS applications are Gmail, Salesforce, Zoom, and Netflix123.
IaC stands for Infrastructure as Code, which is a method of provisioning and managing cloud resources using code or scripts, rather than manual processes or graphical user interfaces. IaC can help automate and standardize the deployment and configuration of cloud infrastructure, as well as improve consistency, reliability, and security. IaC is not a cloud service offering, but rather a technique or practice that can be used with different cloud service models, such as IaaS or PaaS45.
IaaS stands for Infrastructure as a Service, which is a cloud service offering that provides customers with access to virtualized computing resources, such as servers, storage, networks, and operating systems. IaaS customers can rent or lease these resources from a cloud service provider, and have full control over their configuration and management. IaaS customers are responsible for installing, updating, and maintaining their own applications and middleware on top of the cloud infrastructure. IaaS can provide various benefits, such as flexibility, scalability, cost-effectiveness, and security. Some examples of IaaS providers are Amazon Web Services (AWS), Microsoft Azure, and Google Cloud Platform .
PaaS stands for Platform as a Service, which is a cloud service offering that provides customers with access to a cloud-based platform that includes the infrastructure, operating system, middleware, and development tools needed to build, deploy, and run applications. PaaS customers can focus on developing and running their own applications, without worrying about the underlying cloud infrastructure or software. PaaS can provide various benefits, such as faster development, scalability, compatibility, and security. Some examples of PaaS providers are Heroku, AWS Elastic Beanstalk, and Google App Engine .
References := 1: IaaS vs. PaaS vs. SaaS | IBM 2: What is SaaS? Software as a service explained | InfoWorld 3: SaaS - Software as a Service | Oracle 4: What is Infrastructure as Code (IaC)? | Red Hat 5:
Infrastructure as Code (IaC) | AWS : What is IaaS? Infrastructure as a service explained | InfoWorld : IaaS - Infrastructure as a Service | Oracle : Cloud Computing Services | Google Cloud : What is PaaS? Platform as a service explained | InfoWorld : PaaS - Platform as a Service | Oracle : Cloud Services - Deploy Cloud Apps & APIs | Microsoft Azure
NEW QUESTION # 155
Which network monitoring solution uses streams and pushes operational data to provide a near real-time view of activity?
- A. syslog
- B. SMTP
- C. model-driven telemetry
- D. SNMP
Answer: C
Explanation:
The traditional use of the pull model, where the client requests data from the network does not scale when what you want is near real-time data. Moreover, in some use cases, there is the need to be notified only when some data changes, like interfaces status, protocol neighbors change etc.
Model-Driven Telemetry is a new approach for network monitoring in which data is streamed from network devices continuously using a push model and provides near real-time access to operational statistics.
Applications can subscribe to specific data items they need, by using standard-based YANG data models over NETCONF-YANG. Cisco IOS XE streaming telemetry allows to push data off of the device to an external collector at a much higher frequency, more efficiently, as well as data on-change streaming.
The traditional use of the pull model, where the client requests data from the network does not scale when what you want is near real-time data. Moreover, in some use cases, there is the need to be notified only when some data changes, like interfaces status, protocol neighbors change etc.
Model-Driven Telemetry is a new approach for network monitoring in which data is streamed from network devices continuously using a push model and provides near real-time access to operational statistics.
Applications can subscribe to specific data items they need, by using standard-based YANG data models over NETCONF-YANG. Cisco IOS XE streaming telemetry allows to push data off of the device to an external collector at a much higher frequency, more efficiently, as well as data on-change streaming.
The traditional use of the pull model, where the client requests data from the network does not scale when what you want is near real-time data. Moreover, in some use cases, there is the need to be notified only when some data changes, like interfaces status, protocol neighbors change etc.
Model-Driven Telemetry is a new approach for network monitoring in which data is streamed from network devices continuously using a push model and provides near real-time access to operational statistics.
Applications can subscribe to specific data items they need, by using standard-based YANG data models over NETCONF-YANG. Cisco IOS XE streaming telemetry allows to push data off of the device to an external collector at a much higher frequency, more efficiently, as well as data on-change streaming.
NEW QUESTION # 156
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