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NEW QUESTION # 15
Refer lo SCENARIO 2 - You are writing the Master Test Plan for Project 2 and must include a section documenting project risks that you believe could impact testing along with how, as Test Manager, you propose to manage each risk.
Which one of the following is the MOST appropriate entry for the Master Test Plan for RISK 4 "The user interface software for the sound systems will be delivered late into testing-?
SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. Transfer the risk to Smart Alarms for them to propose mitigation
- B. Accept the risk and develop a contingency plan
- C. Ask the stakeholders to accept the risk without mitigation, as code is often late
- D. Prepare the testers to work longer hours
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 16
During what step of the Fundamental Test Process should you define the methods to be used to collect test metrics? [1]
- A. Closure
- B. Planning
- C. Execution
- D. Analysis
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Planning. This is because test metrics are quantitative measures that are used to monitor and control the test process, and to evaluate the test results and quality. Test metrics should be defined during the planning step of the Fundamental Test Process, which is the activity of establishing the test objectives, scope, approach, resources, schedule, and deliverables. By defining the methods to be used to collect test metrics during the planning step, the test team can ensure that the test metrics are aligned with the test plan and the project goals, and that the data collection process is consistent and efficient. Test Metrics - ISTQB not-for-profit association Reference: Certified Tester Advanced Level Test Manager (CTAL-TM) - ISTQB not-for-profit association, ISTQB Test Manager Certification - ISTQB Exams Worldwide - ISTQB Official Registration, Test Metrics - ISTQB not-for-profit association
NEW QUESTION # 17
You are monitoring the test results for the first week of system test execution to ensure they conform to the test plan objectives. You are guided by the list of test conditions and traceability matrix produced following test design. Test Plan objectives
* Approach - Risk-based and depth first
* Status reporting - Execution statuses must be either "Passed*, "Failed", "Blocked" or "Not Run"
* Traceability - Test execution results must be traceable back to the test conditions Test Conditions
Traceability matrix
Which one of the following is a correct statement regarding the current status of test plan objectives?
SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. Only Approach and Traceability objectives have been met.
- B. None of the objectives have been met.
- C. All objectives have been met.
- D. All the Traceability objective has been met.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 18
Your testing team has just received the test conditions for a new project. You are conducting Test Design activities for this project. Your team feels that it would be beneficial to create high-level test cases.
What should they do concurrently with creating these test cases? [2]
- A. Create the traceability between the test cases and the requirements.
- B. Create the test plan.
- C. Create the test summary report for the test cases you are creating.
- D. Create the test automation scripts.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Create the traceability between the test cases and the requirements. This is because traceability is the ability to follow the life of a requirement, in both a forward and backward direction, through its documentation, development, and testing. Traceability can help to ensure that the test cases are derived from the requirements, and that they cover all the relevant aspects of the system. By creating the traceability between the test cases and the requirements concurrently with creating the test cases, the test team can improve the quality and completeness of the test design, and facilitate the test analysis and reporting. Traceability Matrix - ISTQB not-for-profit association References: Certified Tester Advanced Level Test Manager (CTAL-TM) - ISTQB not-for-profit association, ISTQB Test Manager Certification - ISTQB Exams Worldwide - ISTQB Official Registration, Traceability Matrix - ISTQB not-for-profit association
NEW QUESTION # 19
You feel that your team has become lazy when applying good software testing techniques You have given each of them a challenge to take a different business rule and build a full decision table and then collapse that table You will then assess the results For this assessment, what competencies are you validating?
- A. Professional and methodical
- B. Professional and social
- C. Methodical and personal
- D. Social and personal
Answer: A
Explanation:
Competence Assessment:
Professional competence is validated by understanding and applying testing techniques to create a decision table.
Methodical competence is validated by systematically collapsing the decision table to ensure efficient test case design.
Evaluation of Options:
B and C involve social and personal skills, which are unrelated to the task.
D misses the professional aspect of understanding business rules.
A is correct because the challenge tests both professional knowledge and methodical skills.
Reference and Syllabus Alignment:
Decision table techniques and testing competencies are emphasized in "Test Techniques" (TM-1.4.1) and "Test Team Skills" (TM-3.1.1).
NEW QUESTION # 20
Which of the Mowing should be used to understand the context of testing within an organization?
- A. Stakeholder organization chart
- B. The budget
- C. The organizational test strategy
- D. The schedule
Answer: C
Explanation:
Context Analysis:
The test strategy defines th Context Analysis:
Monitoring code coverage is inherently tied to knowledge of the internal structure of the software, a characteristic of white-box testing.
Evaluation of Options:
A . Black-box:
Incorrect. Black-box testing focuses on functionality without knowledge of internal structures.
B . White-box:
Correct. White-box testing uses internal code knowledge to determine areas that need more coverage.
C . Functional:
Incorrect. Functional testing assesses functionality without inspecting internal code.
D . Non-functional:
Incorrect. Non-functional testing focuses on performance, usability, etc., not code coverage.
Syllabus Alignment:
ISTQB associates code coverage monitoring with white-box testing techniques (TM-1.2.6).
Reference:
ISTQB Advanced Level Test Management Syllabus (TM-1.2.6)
approach, resources, and processes for testing within an organization. It provides insight into the testing context.
Evaluation of Options:
A . The organizational test strategy:
Correct. It offers a comprehensive understanding of the organization's testing framework.
B . Stakeholder organization chart:
Incorrect. Useful for identifying roles but does not provide a testing context.
C . The schedule:
Incorrect. Reflects timelines but not testing approaches or resources.
D . The budget:
Incorrect. Indicates financial constraints but not the testing context.
Syllabus Alignment:
ISTQB emphasizes using the organizational test strategy to understand the testing context (TM-1.4.1).
ISTQB Advanced Level Test Management Syllabus (TM-1.4.1)
NEW QUESTION # 21
Instead of having an independent test team within the company, the company is considering to outsource testing. What are THREE key challenges that are typical for outsourcing? 1 credit
- A. Testing of non-functional requirements
- B. Applying test automation
- C. Define expectation for tasks and deliverables
- D. Test environment more complex
- E. Audit trail from requirements to test cases
- F. Clear channels of communications
- G. Possibly different cultures
Answer: C,F,G
NEW QUESTION # 22
The Test Manager must assemble team members that have which of the following characteristics? [1]
- A. Will not change the severity of a defect report
- B. Will spark informal cross training among themselves
- C. Possess identical skill sets
- D. Thrive in a routine, structured environment
Answer: B
Explanation:
A test manager must assemble team members that will spark informal cross training among themselves. This means that the team members are willing and able to share their knowledge, skills, and experiences with each other, and learn from each other's feedback and suggestions. This can improve the team's performance, productivity, and quality, as well as foster a collaborative and supportive culture. Cross training can also help the team members to develop new competencies, fill skill gaps, and handle different roles and tasks when needed. Top 10 Leadership Qualities to Distinguish a Test ManagerTest manager roles and responsibilities (with FAQs) References:
* Top 10 Leadership Qualities to Distinguish a Test Manager - Software Test Professionals
* Test manager roles and responsibilities (with FAQs) - Indeed
NEW QUESTION # 23
Which of the following are primary activities in conducting product risk analysis? [1]
- A. Risk identification, risk assessment
- B. Risk identification, risk testing
- C. Risk testing, risk management
- D. Risk management, risk assessment
Answer: A
Explanation:
Product risk analysis is the process of identifying and assessing the product risks that may affect the quality or functionality of the software under test1. Product risk analysis involves two primary activities: risk identification and risk assessment. Risk identification is the activity of finding, naming, and describing the risks that might affect the software under test2. Risk assessment is the activity of estimating the impact and probability of occurrence (likelihood) of the identified risks, and prioritizing them based on these factors3. Therefore, option B is the correct answer. Option A is incorrect because risk testing and risk management are not primary activities of product risk analysis, but rather activities that follow or use the results of product risk analysis. Risk testing is the activity of designing, implementing, and executing tests based on the product risk levels to reduce the level of product risks and inform stakeholders of their status4. Risk management is the activity of planning, monitoring, and controlling the risks and the risk mitigation actions in the software project5. Option C is incorrect because risk identification and risk testing are not primary activities of product risk analysis, but rather activities that are part of product risk analysis and risk-based testing respectively. Option D is incorrect because risk management and risk assessment are not primary activities of product risk analysis, but rather activities that are part of risk management and product risk analysis respectively. Reference: 1: ISTQB Glossary, Product Risk Analysis 2: ISTQB Glossary, Risk Identification 3: ISTQB Glossary, Risk Assessment 4: ISTQB Glossary, Risk-Based Testing 5: ISTQB Glossary, Risk Management : Product Risk Analysis (PRA) | TMap : Risk-Based Testing | ISTQB Glossary : Risk Analysis | ISTQB Glossary
NEW QUESTION # 24
Which one of the following statements correctly describes how product quality risks should be mitigated and managed? SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. The number of test levels should address the different priorities of identified product quality risks.
- B. The amount of time dedicated to analysis, design and execution of tests should be based on the assessed level of risk.
- C. The size of the test team should be proportional to the number of high priority product quality risks identified.
- D. The number of people dedicated to analysis, design and execution should be proportional to the level of risk identified.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 25
Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to measure the effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit
- A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
- B. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
- C. Lines of code written per developer per day
- D. Percentage of requirements covered
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 26
As a Test Manager, which one of the following do you think is the MOST important reason for ensuring effective processes are in place for test monitoring and reporting?
SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. It allows for easier and more effective evaluation of exit criteria
- B. Reporting numbers of defects shows how effective the test team are.
- C. keeps stakeholders informed and prevents lots of meetings.
- D. The test report determines if a system can be deployed to live.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 27
Which of the following describes the Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) risk analysis technique? SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. FMEA is where quality risks, their potential causes and their likely effects are identified and then severity, priority and detection ratings are assigned.
- B. FMEA is an analytical process upstream, that attempts to identify the hazards for each risk.
- C. FMEA is a quality risk management technique concerned with quality risks that arise from an incorrect understanding of the customer requirements.
- D. FMEA is a risk mitigation process that involves determining every possible type of failure, and designing tests to cover each one.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 28
Your company just won a contract to create a new sales application and has committed to a very aggressive delivery timeline. Due to the quick turnaround your primary stakeholder wants to be heavily involved in the design and is very anxious to see the outcome. Because of this, your company has decided to use a spiral development approach. You have a defined test policy and typically use an analytical approach to testing, however, this approach will not work with the development approach.
What test strategy should be utilized? [3]
- A. Reactive
- B. Methodical
- C. Standard-compliant
- D. Model-based
Answer: A
Explanation:
A reactive test strategy is a test strategy that uses the actual behavior and results of the software under test to design and execute tests, without prior knowledge or documentation of the software1. A reactive test strategy should be utilized for a project that uses a spiral development approach, which is a type of iterative/incremental approach that adds risk analysis and prototyping activities to each iteration2. A reactive test strategy is suitable for a spiral development approach because it allows for flexibility, adaptability, and creativity in the testing process, as well as for early feedback, risk reduction, and continuous improvement in the software development process3. Therefore, option D is the correct answer. Option A is incorrect because a model-based test strategy is a test strategy that uses models to represent the desired behavior and structure of the software under test, and to derive test cases, test data, test procedures, and test oracles. A model-based test strategy may not work well with a spiral development approach, as it requires the availability and stability of the models, which may not be the case in a spiral development approach that involves frequent changes and refinements of the software under test. Option B is incorrect because a methodical test strategy is a test strategy that uses predefined test methods, techniques, and procedures to design and execute tests, such as equivalence partitioning, boundary value analysis, or decision table testing. A methodical test strategy may not work well with a spiral development approach, as it requires the availability and stability of the test basis, such as the requirements, specifications, or design documents, which may not be the case in a spiral development approach that involves frequent changes and refinements of the software under test. Option C is incorrect because a standard-compliant test strategy is a test strategy that follows a predefined set of standards, guidelines, or regulations to design and execute tests, such as ISO, IEEE, or CMMI. A standard-compliant test strategy may not work well with a spiral development approach, as it requires the compliance and consistency of the testing process, which may not be the case in a spiral development approach that involves frequent changes and refinements of the software under test. References: 1: ISTQB Glossary, Reactive Test Strategy 2:
ISTQB Glossary, Spiral Model 3: ISTQB Advanced Level Test Manager Syllabus, Section 1.1.1 : Spiral Model in Software Development Life Cycle - Software Testing Material : Spiral Model - Tools QA : Strategic Test Management - ISTQB not-for-profit association : ISTQB Glossary, Model-Based Testing : ISTQB Glossary, Methodical Test Strategy : ISTQB Glossary, Standard-Compliant Test Strategy : ISTQB Foundation Level #39 - Test Approach and Strategy - Software Testing Mentor
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which of the Mowing Is commonly used by a test manager to identity risks'
- A. Function points within the software
- B. Experience with similar projects
- C. Record/playback test automation tools
- D. Lines of code in the system under test
Answer: B
Explanation:
Common Risk Identification Techniques:
A test manager often relies on experience with similar projects to foresee risks related to technical complexity, domain challenges, or previous defects.
Other options listed are less effective for comprehensive risk identification.
Evaluation of Options:
A (Lines of code) and B (Function points) are quantitative measures, not directly tied to risk identification.
C is correct as past experience is crucial for identifying risks early.
D (Record/playback tools) is irrelevant to risk analysis.
Reference and Syllabus Alignment:
Risk identification techniques are discussed under "Risk Management" (TM-1.3.1).
NEW QUESTION # 30
You are testing a new product that will turn on the windshield wipers of a car when the sensorsdetect there is moisture on the windshield. Depending on the information returned from the sensors, the wipers will be turned on at one of the following speeds: slow intermittent, medium intermittent, fast intermittent, slow constant, medium constant, fast constant. Your team has identified the following test condition:
Test Condition 1.1.1 - Verify that the windshield wipers can go from slow constant to fast constant speed when the amount of moisture increases appropriately.
Your team has defined the following steps for a test case for this test condition:
1. Set the moisture sensor to request slow constant
2. Increase the moisture to set the sensor to request fast constant
3. Verify that the wipers respond with fast constant speed
Given this information, which of the following statements is correct? [2]
- A. There is not enough information in the test condition to define a test case.
- B. This test case is not traceable to the test condition.
- C. This test case is traceable to the test condition and provides 100% requirements coverage of the defined test condition.
- D. The test case is traceable to the test condition and provides 100% statement coverage of the defined test condition.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. The test case is traceable to the test condition and provides 100% statement coverage of the defined test condition. This is because the test case is derived from the test condition, and it covers all the possible outcomes of the test condition, such as the initial state, the input, and the expected output.
Statement coverage is a metric that measures the percentage of executable statements that are exercised by a test case. In this case, the test case exercises all the statements in the test condition, thus achieving 100% statement coverage. Statement Coverage - ISTQB not-for-profit association References: Certified Tester Advanced Level Test Manager (CTAL-TM) - ISTQB not-for-profit association, ISTQB Test Manager Certification - ISTQB Exams Worldwide - ISTQB Official Registration, Statement Coverage - ISTQB not-for-profit association
NEW QUESTION # 31
When closing out a defect report, which of the following developer commentaries is most likely to motivate a tester? [1]
- A. Fixed - error in build caused compatibility issues
- B. Rejected - would take too long to fix
- C. Rejected - system is functioning as designed
- D. Fixed - minor usability issue, wasn't worth the time to fix it
Answer: A
Explanation:
This developer commentary is most likely to motivate a tester because it acknowledges the tester's contribution in finding a defect that affected the product's functionality and compatibility. It also shows that the developer took the defect seriously and fixed it promptly. This commentary demonstrates respect and appreciation for the tester's work and fosters a collaborative relationship between the developer and the tester. 21 inspirational quotes about software testingWhat motivates you - Take the Motivation Test References:
* 21 inspirational quotes about software testing - Testlio
* What motivates you - Take the Motivation Test | SeeMyPersonality
NEW QUESTION # 32
Consider the following metrics:
a Percentage of all product risks identified during initial risk analysis b. Average time taken by developers to fix defects for each severity level c. Statement coverage achieved by the component test suite d. Breakdown of defects detected by test level How many of the five primary dimensions for test progress monitoring have been addressed by these metrics?
SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 33
Most managers in your company consider the efforts of your test team valuable, while others see comprehensive testing as an unnecessary cost overhead to the SDLC.
What action could the Test Manager take to quantify the value of testing to the organization? [3]
- A. Determine the cost of external failures.
- B. Demonstrate the role QA has in similar size organizations.
- C. Develop metrics that illustrate planned and actual testing hours.
- D. Review the Test Plan with the management team.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Determining the cost of external failures involves analyzing the impact of defects that escape into production.
This includes the direct costs associated with fixing the defects, as well as the indirect costs such as customer dissatisfaction, damage to the company's reputation, and potential loss of business. By quantifying these costs, the Test Manager can illustrate the financial benefits of comprehensive testing in preventing high-cost external failures, thereby demonstrating its value as an investment rather than a cost overhead.
References:The ISTQB Advanced Level Test Manager documents provide guidelines on how to establish and use metrics to measure the effectiveness and efficiency of the testing process, including the cost of quality and the Return on Investment (ROI) for testing activities. These references support the rationale behind choosing option C as the verified answer.
NEW QUESTION # 34
Your application development team is performing "test-driven" development. This is a core principal of which software development model?[1]
- A. Iterative
- B. Sequential
- C. Spiral
- D. Agile
Answer: D
Explanation:
Test-driven development (TDD) is a core principle of Agile software development. In TDD, test cases are created before the code is written, and the code is developed to pass these tests. This approach emphasizes requirements and solutions evolving through collaborative effort and is a key practice in Agile methodologies12.
References:The Agile Alliance describes TDD as a style of programming tightly interwoven with coding, testing, and design, which is a fundamental aspect of Agile development3. Wikipedia also notes that TDD is related to the test-first programming concepts of extreme programming, an Agile methodology This is because test-driven development (TDD) is a style of programming in which coding, testing, and design are tightly interwoven. TDD is a core principle of agile software development, which is an iterative and adaptive approach that values customer collaboration, working software, and responding to change. Agile Alliance References: Certified Tester Advanced Level Test Manager (CTAL-TM) - ISTQB not-for-profit association, ISTQB Test Manager Certification - ISTQB Exams Worldwide - ISTQB Official Registration, What is Test Driven Development (TDD)? | Agile Alliance
NEW QUESTION # 35
When scheduling performance testing, which of the following approaches would be most advisable? [1]
- A. Leveraging end users to do unit-level performance testing and automated tools for system-level performance testing
- B. Deferring the start of performance testing until all functional defects have been resolved
- C. Requiring all performance tests to pass before starting functional testing
- D. Starting the performance testing during unit and integration testing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Performance testing is the process of determining the speed, responsiveness, and stability of a system under a given workload1. Performance testing should be started as early as possible in the software development lifecycle, preferably during unit and integration testing, to identify and resolve performance issues before they become costly or risky2. Starting performance testing early can also help to validate the performance requirements, design, and architecture of the system, as well as to optimize the performance testing strategy and scope3. Therefore, option A is the correct answer. Option B is incorrect because deferring the start of performance testing until all functional defects have been resolved can delay the detection and resolution of performance issues, increase the cost and effort of performance testing, and reduce the confidence and quality of the system4. Option C is incorrect because leveraging end users to do unit-level performance testing and automated tools for system-level performance testing can introduce inconsistency, bias, and inefficiency in the performance testing process, as well as compromise the reliability and validity of the performance test results. Option D is incorrect because requiring all performance tests to pass before starting functional testing can create unrealistic or unnecessary expectations, as well as hinder the progress and feedback of the functional testing activities. Reference: 1: ISTQB Glossary, Performance Testing 2: ISTQB Certified Tester - Performance Testing (CT-PT)3 3: ISTQB Performance Testing - TesterYou4 4: Performance Testing - ISTQB not-for-profit association : ISTQB - PERFORMANCE TESTING : Performance Testing - ISTQB not-for-profit association
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which of the following metrics would be most beneficial to collect to determine the effectiveness of a review process? [2]
- A. The development language used to create each module that was reviewed
- B. The business criticality of each module that was reviewed
- C. The elapsed time between each module's review and its corresponding deployment into production
- D. The number of defects found in production for each module that was reviewed
Answer: D
Explanation:
The effectiveness of a review process can be measured by how well it detects and removes defects from the work products being reviewed1. One of the metrics that can indicate the defect detection capability of a review process is the number of defects found in production for each module that was reviewed2. This metric can show how many defects escaped the review process and were not detected until the software was deployed. A lower number of defects found in production means a higher review effectiveness. Therefore, option A is the correct answer. Option B is incorrect because the development language used to create each module that was reviewed is not relevant to the review process effectiveness. Option C is incorrect because the elapsed time between each module's review and its corresponding deployment into production is not a measure of defect detection or removal, but rather a measure of development speed or efficiency. Option D is incorrect because the business criticality of each module that was reviewed is not a measure of defect detection or removal, but rather a measure of risk or priority. References: 1: ISTQB Advanced Level Test Manager Syllabus, Section
2.3.2 2: Software Testing Metrics: What is, Types & Example
NEW QUESTION # 37
Which of the following are valid reasons for adopting a different life cycle (from the V model), for increments after the first year? 2 credits
i. We do not have a clear understanding of the requirements from a customer perspective.
ii. We see the risk of delivering requested functionality late as being higher than the risk of delivering a lower quality product.
iii. We do not have a budget for additional regression testing which is needed to ensure that existing functionality is not compromised by future iterations.
iv.
The company test strategy does not fit well within the V life cycle model.
- A. (ii) and (iv)
- B. (i) and (iv)
- C. (i) and (ii)
- D. (ii) and (iii)
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which of the following are valid reasons for adopting a different life cycle (from the V model), for increments after the first year? 2 credits i. We do not have a clear understanding of the requirements from a customer perspective.
ii. We see the risk of delivering requested functionality late as being higher than the risk of delivering a lower quality product.
iii. We do not have a budget for additional regression testing which is needed to ensure that existing functionality is not compromised by future iterations.
iv. The company test strategy does not fit well within the V life cycle model.
- A. (ii) and (iv)
- B. (i) and (iv)
- C. (i) and (ii)
- D. (ii) and (iii)
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Topic 6, Scenario 6, V4 "Independent Test Team"
You have for a while been trying to hire a second test automation specialist for your test team However, you did not have any luck in finding a suitable candidate. So now, you have been asked by IT management of XYZ to forward a proposal with alternative solutions for building an automated regression test suite at system test level over a period of 2 years including needed training and eventual handover to the test team.
NEW QUESTION # 39
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