[Full-Version] 2025 New Preparation Guide of Cisco 300-740 Exam
300-740 Practice Exam - 201 Unique Questions
Cisco 300-740 Exam Syllabus Topics:
| Topic | Details |
|---|---|
| Topic 1 |
|
| Topic 2 |
|
| Topic 3 |
|
| Topic 4 |
|
| Topic 5 |
|
| Topic 6 |
|
| Topic 7 |
|
NEW QUESTION # 55
What is the primary purpose of implementing identity certificates for user and device authentication?
- A. To monitor user activity
- B. To track device locations
- C. To increase network speed
- D. To ensure secure access to resources
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 56
An engineer configures trusted endpoints with Active Directory with Device Health to determine if an endpoint complies with the policy posture. After a week, an alert is received by one user, reporting problems accessing an application. When the engineer verifies the authentication report, this error is found:
"Endpoint is not trusted because Cisco Secure Endpoint check failed, Check user's endpoint in Cisco Secure Endpoint." Which action must the engineer take to permit access to the application again?
- A. Verify the Duo admin panel, check the EndPoints tab, verify the status of the machine, and after a complete process of analysis, mark the computer as Resolved to permit the user to authenticate again.
- B. Verify the Cisco Secure Endpoint admin panel, check the Inbox tab, verify the status of the machine, and after a complete process of analysis, mark the computer as Resolved to permit the user to authenticate again.
- C. Verify the Trusted Endpoints policy to verify the status of the machine, and after a complete process of analysis, permit the machine to have access to the application.
- D. Verify the Cisco Secure Endpoint admin panel and approve the access to the user on the Management tab after a complete virus check of the user's laptop.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cisco Secure Endpoint (formerly AMP for Endpoints) includes an "Inbox" tab where detected threats and flagged endpoints are listed. When Duo Trusted Endpoints integration is in place, an endpoint may be denied access if it fails posture checks. The correct workflow includes reviewing the machine's status in Cisco Secure Endpoint and marking the incident as "Resolved" in the Inbox tab to restore authentication.
This process is described in SCAZT Section 2 (User and Device Security, Pages 44-46) for enforcing endpoint trust with Secure Endpoint and Duo Trusted Endpoints integration.
Reference: Designing and Implementing Secure Cloud Access for Users and Endpoints (SCAZT), Section 2, Pages 44-46
NEW QUESTION # 57
Which of the following is true about lateral movement prevention strategies?
- A. They primarily focus on external firewall configuration
- B. They are only applicable in on-premises environments
- C. They encourage the use of shared credentials
- D. They include the use of just-in-time access and privilege escalation monitoring
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 58 
Refer to the exhibit. A security engineer must configure a posture policy in Cisco ISE to ensure that employee laptops have a critical patch for WannaCry installed before they can access the network. Which posture condition must the engineer configure?
- A. Patch Management Condition
- B. File Condition
- C. Anti-Malware Condition
- D. Anti-Virus Condition
Answer: B
Explanation:
The screenshot from Cisco ISE shows a configuration of a "File Condition" posture check that verifies the existence and version of the "Srv.sys" file in the System32 directory. This is a known method to validate if a Windows device has received a critical security patch (in this case, one related to protection against the WannaCry vulnerability, MS17-010). Cisco ISE does not rely solely on a patch management system for this type of validation but can use specific file version and path checks. Therefore, the correct posture condition is File Condition.
Reference: Designing and Implementing Secure Cloud Access for Users and Endpoints (SCAZT), Section 2:
User and Device Security, Pages 43-45.
NEW QUESTION # 59
The primary goal of direct-internet-access policies for trusted business applications is to:
- A. Isolate the business application from the internet
- B. Balance security and performance by allowing direct access under strict security controls
- C. Completely bypass all security measures for speed
- D. Eliminate the need for any form of web security
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 60 
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a remote access IPsec/IKEv1 VPN that will use AES256 and SHA256 on a Cisco ASA firewall. The indicated configuration was applied to the firewall; however, the tunnel fails to establish. Which two IKEv1 policy commands must be run to meet the requirement? (Choose two.)
- A. hash sha-256
- B. ipsec-proposal AES256-SHA256
- C. ipsec-proposal sha-256-aes-256
- D. encryption aes-256
- E. integrity aes-256
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
In IKEv1 policy configuration for Cisco ASA, two key commands are required to define the encryption and hashing algorithms:
A: encryption aes-256 defines the encryption method for the IKE SA.
E: hash sha-256 ensures SHA-256 is used as the integrity mechanism during IKE phase 1.
According to Cisco documentation and SCAZT (Section 1: Cloud Security Architecture, Pages 19-22), these two components are essential to negotiating a secure VPN tunnel. The provided config uses group 1 (modp768), which is weak by today's standards and could also lead to negotiation failure. However, from the available options, encryption and hash are the two required for tunnel success.
Reference: Designing and Implementing Secure Cloud Access for Users and Endpoints (SCAZT), Section 1, Pages 19-22
NEW QUESTION # 61
Which security policy is most relevant for controlling access to SaaS applications like Office 365, Workday, and Salesforce?
- A. Allowing all outbound traffic without inspection
- B. Implementing access control based on user identity and device security posture
- C. Blocking all cloud services to ensure network security
- D. Unlimited data transfer policies
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 62
Open Telemetry is used for:
- A. Reducing the visibility into application performance
- B. Increasing the dependency on proprietary tools
- C. Gathering and exporting telemetry data in a vendor-agnostic way
- D. Limiting the scope of security investigations
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 63
Endpoint posture policies help ensure that:
- A. Devices have unlimited access to resources
- B. Devices meet security standards before accessing network resources
- C. Users can bypass security measures
- D. Network performance is degraded
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 64
User and device security in the Cisco Security Reference Architecture primarily focuses on:
- A. Cloud storage encryption
- B. Authentication and endpoint protection
- C. Physical access controls
- D. Network segmentation
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 65
Verifying user access to applications and data can be effectively done using:
- A. Firewall logs for monitoring access attempts
- B. Personal interviews with users about their access patterns
- C. Guesswork based on user complaints
- D. Random security audits once a year
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 66
Microsegmentation helps in cloud security by:
- A. Centralizing all applications into a single network segment
- B. Reducing the number of security policies needed
- C. Creating secure zones in data centers and cloud environments to isolate workloads from one another
- D. Allowing unrestricted traffic flow within the cloud environment
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 67
An organization is distributed across several sites. Each site is connected to the main HQ using site-to-site VPNs implemented using Secure Firewall Threat Defense. Which functionality must be implemented if the security manager wants to send SaaS traffic directly to the internet?
- A. ECMP routing
- B. Policy-based routing
- C. IPsec tunnels
- D. Multi-instances
Answer: B
Explanation:
Policy-Based Routing (PBR) enables routing decisions based on criteria such as source IP, destination IP, or application. To send SaaS traffic (e.g., Office 365, Salesforce) directly to the internet rather than over a site-to- site VPN, PBR must be configured at each site firewall. According to SCAZT Section 1 (Cloud Security Architecture, Pages 18-20), this approach enables secure local internet breakout-commonly used in direct internet access (DIA) architectures.
Reference: Designing and Implementing Secure Cloud Access for Users and Endpoints (SCAZT), Section 1, Pages 18-20
NEW QUESTION # 68
The main advantage of implementing user and device authentication via identity certificates is:
- A. The elimination of passwords for all users
- B. The reduction in the need for physical security controls
- C. The increase in the speed of network connections
- D. The provision of a secure method to verify identities
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 69 
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure SAML SSO in Cisco ISE to use Microsoft Azure AD as an identity provider. These configurations were performed:
* Configure a SAML IdP in ISE.
* Configure the Azure AD IdP settings.
Which two actions must the engineer take in Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
- A. Upload metadata from Azure AD to ISE.
- B. Add a SAML IdP.
- C. Configure SAML groups in ISE.
- D. Configure the External Identity Sources settings.
- E. Configure the Internal Identity Source Sequence setting.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
When integrating Cisco ISE with Azure AD using SAML SSO:
B: The Azure AD metadata must be uploaded into ISE to establish trust and allow token validation.
D: External Identity Sources settings must be configured in ISE to recognize and process authentication requests via SAML-based identity providers like Azure AD.
These are mandatory steps for enabling browser-based SSO authentication in ISE as explained in SCAZT Section 2 (User and Device Security, Pages 42-44), which describes federated identity integration.
Note: Option A is already completed as stated in the prompt. Options C and E are not essential to the authentication flow in this SAML context.
Reference: Designing and Implementing Secure Cloud Access for Users and Endpoints (SCAZT), Section 2, Pages 42-44
NEW QUESTION # 70
The final step in handling a security incident, after containment and remediation, is to _________ the affected systems or applications to their normal state.
- A. reinstantiate
- B. quarantine
- C. dismantle
- D. abandon
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 71
The use of a reverse proxy in cloud security is important for:
- A. Only logging HTTP/HTTPS traffic
- B. Simplifying the network by removing the need for firewalls
- C. Directly exposing application servers to the internet
- D. Providing an additional layer of abstraction and control to ensure the security of backend servers
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 72
......
Latest Questions 300-740 Guide to Prepare Free Practice Tests: https://www.exam4labs.com/300-740-practice-torrent.html
Reliable 300-740 Dumps Questions Available as Web-Based Practice Test Engine: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1zgmKF2SQHV2htexdjG0tRsys2iN4CheX