CCSK Practice Exams and Training Solutions for Certifications [Q11-Q26]

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CCSK Practice Exams and Training Solutions for Certifications

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Introduction to Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSK) Exam

Learn the core concepts, best practices, and recommendations for securing an organization on the cloud regardless of the provider or platform. Covering all the 14 domains from the CSA Security Guidance v4, recommendations from ENISA, and the Cloud Controls Matrix, you will come away understanding how to leverage the information from CSA's vendor-neutral research to keep data secure on the cloud.

They need information security experts who are cloud-savvy as companies move to the cloud. The CCSK certificate is generally accepted as the cloud protection standard of expertise and gives you the foundations you need to protect data in the cloud. It is your decision on how you choose to draw on that experience.

The certification has the following objectives. These objectives can be fulfilled by carefully studying the CCSk exam dumps:

  • An in-depth understanding of cloud computing's full capabilities
  • Compared to internationally agreed requirements, the knowledge to build a comprehensive cloud protection program effectively
  • Recommendations from the cloud guidelines of the European Union Agency for Network and Information Security (ENISA)
  • Using the cloud-specific governance & enforcement tool, how to determine the protection of cloud providers and your organization: Cloud Controls Matrix

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Exam Details

FAQs and Guide

 

NEW QUESTION 11
In ability to provide enough capacity to the cloud customer can lead to which of the following risk:

  • A. Resource Utilization
  • B. Data Dispersion
  • C. Resource Exhaustion
  • D. Data Breach

Answer: C

Explanation:
Cloud services are on-demand Therefore there is a level of calculated risk in allocating all the resources of a cloud service, because resources are allocated according to statistical projections. In accurate modelling of resources usage common resources allocation algorithms are vulnerable to distortions of fairness or inadequate resource provisioning and inadequate investments in infrastructure.

 

NEW QUESTION 12
One of key focus of ISO 27001 standard is:

  • A. Develop ISMS (Information Security management system)
  • B. Define organizational structure
  • C. Put security controls in place
  • D. Find the data breaches in the organization

Answer: A

Explanation:
ISO/IEC 27001 is the best-known standard in the family providing requirements for an information security management system (ISMS).
An ISMS is a systematic approach to managing sensitive company information so that it remains secure.
It includes people, processes and IT systems by applying a risk management process.

 

NEW QUESTION 13
Which of the following is correct about Due Care & Due Diligence?

  • A. Due diligence is the act of investigating and understanding the risks a company faces whereas Due care is the development and implementation of policies and procedures to aid in protecting the company. its assets and its people from threats.
  • B. None of the above definitions are correct.
  • C. Due care is technical control whereas Due Deligence is physical control.
  • D. Due care is the act of investigating and understanding the risks a company faces whereas Due Diligence is the development and implementation of policies and procedures to aid in protecting the company. its assets and its people from threats.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Definitions:
Due diligence is the act of investigating and understanding the risks a company faces.
Due care is the development and implementation of policies and procedures to aid in protecting the company, its assets, and its people from threats

 

NEW QUESTION 14
Which of the following storages is typically used for swap files and other temporary storage needs and is terminated with its instance?

  • A. Content Deliver
  • B. Raw Storage
  • C. Object based Storage
  • D. Ephemeral Storage

Answer: D

Explanation:
Ephemeral storage: This type of storage is relevant for SaaS instances and exists only as long as its instance is up. It is typically used for swap files and other temporary storage needs and is terminated with its instance.

 

NEW QUESTION 15
You, as a cloud customer, will more control on event and diagnostic data in SaaS environment than in the PaaS or IaaS environment.

  • A. True
  • B. False

Answer: B

Explanation:
This is false because it will be exactly opposite. ln SaaS environment, you will least amount of controls on event and diagnostic data. Your control will, in fact, increase as you for from SaaS to PaaS and eventually, in IaaS, you will have full control Event and diagnostic data (except of platform logs which is maintained by the cloud service provider).

 

NEW QUESTION 16
Security Governance, Risk and Compliance(GRC) is, generally, responsibility of which of the following across all the platforms (IaaS, PaaS and SaaS)?

  • A. Cloud Service Provider
  • B. Customer
  • C. Shared responsibility
  • D. Joint Responsibility

Answer: B

Explanation:
GRC is responsibility of the customer across all service models.

 

NEW QUESTION 17
NIST defines five characteristics of cloud computing- Rapid Elasticity, Broad Network Access, 0n demand self-service, Metered Usage & Resource pooling. However, IS0/lEC17788 mentions one more characteristic in addition is those 5. Which of the following is that characterstic?

  • A. Automation
  • B. Isolation
  • C. Segregation
  • D. Multitenancy

Answer: D

Explanation:
IS0/lEC17788 lists six key characteristics. the first five of which are identical to the NIST characteristics.
The only addition is multitenancy. which is distinct from resource pooling.
Ref: CSA Security Guidelines V4.0

 

NEW QUESTION 18
Where does the private cloud reside?

  • A. On-premise or off-premise
  • B. Remote
  • C. Off-premise
  • D. On-premise

Answer: A

Explanation:
According to CSA security guide lines. although. private cloud is for organisation's own use. it can reside on-site or off-premise as well.

 

NEW QUESTION 19
How does virtualized storage help avoid data loss if a drive fails?

  • A. Incremental backups daily
  • B. Drives are backed up, swapped, and archived constantly
  • C. Full back ups weekly
  • D. Data loss is unavoidable with drive failures
  • E. Multiple copies in different locations

Answer: E

 

NEW QUESTION 20
Which one is NOT considered as one of the building blocks of the cloud computing?

  • A. RAM
  • B. Networking
  • C. Clock
  • D. CPU

Answer: C

Explanation:
The question is asking for an exception by using "NOT"
The building blocks of cloud computing are composed of random access memory (RAM), the central processing unit(CPU), storage, and networking.

 

NEW QUESTION 21
Which is the most common control used for Risk Transfer?

  • A. SLA
  • B. Insurance
  • C. Contracts
  • D. Web Application Firewall

Answer: B

Explanation:
Buying insurance is most common method of transferring risk.

 

NEW QUESTION 22
Which of the following reports is of most interest to the customer but may not be provided by Cloud Service Provider?

  • A. SOC3
  • B. SOC1 Type I
  • C. SOC2 Type I
  • D. SOC2 Type II

Answer: D

Explanation:
SOC2 Type II is the report which will be of lot of interest to the customers but it will not be provided by the cloud service provider as it may release lot of information about security controls put in place which can harm cloud service providers infrastructure adversely.
SOC2 Type II is a report on management's description of the service organisation's system and the suitability of the design and operating effectiveness of the controls

 

NEW QUESTION 23
ln which of the following cloud service models is the customer required to maintain the operating system?

  • A. SaaS
  • B. Public Cloud
  • C. IaaS
  • D. PaaS

Answer: C

Explanation:
According to "The NIST Definition of Cloud Computing," in IaaS, "the capability provided to the consumer is to provision processing, storage, networks, and other fundamental computing resources where the consumer is able to deploy and run arbitrary software, which can include OSs and applications. The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure but has control over OSs, storage, and deployed applications; and possibly limited control of select networking components (e.g, host firewalls)."

 

NEW QUESTION 24
What of the following is NOT an essential characteristic of cloud computing?

  • A. Resource Pooling
  • B. Broad Network Access
  • C. Rapid Elasticity
  • D. Measured Service
  • E. Third Party Service

Answer: E

 

NEW QUESTION 25
Policy documentation and training is a:

  • A. Technical control
  • B. Administrative control
  • C. Logical control
  • D. Physical control

Answer: B

Explanation:
There are three, commonly accepted forms of Controls:
Administrative-These are the laws, regulations, policies, practices and guidelines that govern the overall requirements and controls for an Information Security or other operational risk program. For example, a law or regulation may require merchants and financial institutions to protect and implement controls for customer account data to prevent identity theft. The business, in order to comply with the law or regulation, may adopt policies and procedures laying out the internal requirements for protecting this data, which requirements are a form of control.
Logical -These are the virtual, application and technical controls (systems and software), such as firewalls, antivirus software, encryption and maker/checker application routines.
Physical -Whereas a firewall provides a "logical" key to obtain access to a network, a "physical" key to a door can be used to gain access to an office space or storage room. Other examples of physical controls are video surveillance systems, gates and barricades, the use of guards or other personnel to govern access to an office, and remote backup facilities.

 

NEW QUESTION 26
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