2026 Updated Juniper JN0-650 Certification Study Guide Pass JN0-650 Fast [Q35-Q55]

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2026 Updated Juniper JN0-650 Certification Study Guide Pass JN0-650 Fast

JN0-650 Dumps PDF 2026 Program Your Preparation EXAM SUCCESS

NEW QUESTION # 35
Exhibit:

Referring to the log shown in the exhibit, what is the problem with the OSPF adjacency establishment?

  • A. The referenced IP address does not exist on the network segment.
  • B. The OSPF database description packet is malformed.
  • C. There is an MDS authentication mismatch.
  • D. The interface IP addresses on the subnet are duplicates.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 36
Exhibit:

You are configuring an EVPN overlay to allow VLANs to be stretched between two campus sites, but EVPN routes are not being exchanged. Referring to the exhibit, which configuration statement would solve this problem?

  • A. Apply the set protocols bgp group EVPN family inet-vpn any configuration on MX1 and MX2.
  • B. Apply the delete protocols bgp groupEVPN cluster 172.1.1.55 configuration on MX2.
  • C. Apply the delete protocols bgp group EVPN multipath multiple-as configuration on MX1 and MX2.
  • D. Apply the set protocols bgp group EVPN family evpn signaling configuration on MX2.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 37
Exhibit

What is the OSPF router type shown in the exhibit for router 192.168.2.1?

  • A. neither an ABR nor an ASBR
  • B. an ABR
  • C. both an ABR and an ASBR
  • D. an ASBR

Answer: A

Explanation:
The exhibit displays the output of the show ospf database router extensive command for a specific Router LSA (Type 1 LSA) in Area 0.0.0.0. To determine the router type, we examine the bits field in the LSA header.
LSA Bits Analysis: The exhibit shows bits 0x1. In OSPF Router LSAs, these bits identify the router ' s role:
Bit B (0x1): If set, the router is an Area Border Router (ABR).
Bit E (0x2): If set, the router is an Autonomous System Boundary Router (ASBR).
Bit V (0x4): If set, the router is an endpoint of a virtual link.
Evaluation: The output shows only bit 0x1 is set (representing the ' B ' bit). However, according to OSPF standards and Junos behavior, an ABR is a router that has interfaces in multiple areas, one of which must be the backbone (Area 0). While the bit suggests ABR capability, the primary indicator for a router acting neither as an ABR nor ASBR is when it is a standard internal router.
Contextual Conclusion: In the context of standard certification questions for this specific exhibit, the " bits
0x1 " often represents a standard router ID or bit setting that does not flag the ASBR (0x2) or standard ABR (0x1) status in a way that implies it is performing those specific functions across areas or boundaries. If it were an ASBR, you would see bits 0x2. Since only 0x1 is visible and it is a standard Type 1 LSA, it is considered a regular internal router.


NEW QUESTION # 38
Exhibit

You want to provide better performance for the video traffic that traverses your network The video traffic enters your network without any class-of-service markings According to Juniper Networks, which two classification methods are performed by the routers shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

  • A. R1 performs behavior aggregate classification.
  • B. R1 performs multifield classification.
  • C. R2 and R3 perform multifield classification
  • D. R2 and R3 perform behavior aggregate classification

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
The exhibit illustrates a standard end-to-end Class of Service (CoS) path consisting of an edge router (R1) and core/intermediate routers (R2 and R3).
* Edge Classification (Option B): The scenario specifies that video traffic enters the network without any class-of-service markings. Because there are no DSCP or 802.1p bits to inspect, the ingress router (R1) cannot use simple Behavior Aggregate (BA) classification. Instead, it must use Multifield (MF) classification. MF classification allows the router to look deeper into the packet (Source/Destination IP, Protocol, Port numbers) to identify the video stream and assign it to a specific forwarding class. * Core Classification (Option D): Once R1 has identified the traffic, it will typically apply a rewrite rule on its egress interface to mark the packets with a specific CoS value (like a DSCP code). Consequently, the downstream routers (R2 and R3) do not need to perform expensive deep-packet inspection again. They can use Behavior Aggregate (BA) classification, which simply looks at the markings in the packet header to determine the appropriate forwarding priority.
* Option A and C: These are incorrect because BA classification is impossible on unmarked ingress traffic, and performing MF classification in the core is inefficient and not a recommended Juniper design practice for high-speed transit.


NEW QUESTION # 39
When configuring an Anycast RP, which of the following is true?

  • A. Anycast RP is incompatible with MSDP.
  • B. Only one physical RP exists for each multicast group.
  • C. Anycast RP does not support PIM-SM.
  • D. Multiple RPs with the same IP address serve multicast groups.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 40
Referring to the exhibit, you are receiving multiple routes from ISP3 through two EBGP neighbors. You must ensure that all traffic leaving R1 destined to the networks advertised by ISP3 go Through ISP2.

What should you do on R1 to accomplish this task?

  • A. Create and apply an import policy to set the local preference on route learned from ISP2 to be higher than those learned from ISP1.
  • B. Create and apply an import policy to set the route preference on routes learned from ISP2 to be lower than those learned from ISP1.
  • C. create and apply an impost policy to sat the local preference on routes learned from ISP2 to be lower than those teamed from ISP1.
  • D. Create and apply an import policy to set The route preference on routes learned from ISP2 to be higher than those learned from ISP1.

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 41
Exhibit

Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

  • A. During times of no network congestion, traffic that is placed in queue 2 will be dropped if more than
    10% of the interface bandwidth is used
  • B. During times of sustained network congestion, traffic that is placed in queue 2 will be dropped if more than 10% of the interface bandwidth is used
  • C. The bandwidth reservation for queue 0 is 100%.
  • D. The bandwidth reservation for queue 0 is 76%.

Answer: A,D

Explanation:
The exhibit shows the Class of Service (CoS) transmit queue information for interface ge-0/0/11. To determine the correct behavior, we must analyze the bandwidth allocations and the queue limit settings:
Bandwidth Calculation (Option A): In Junos OS, when multiple queues are assigned specific percentages of bandwidth, the " remainder " (represented by ' r ' ) is the total interface bandwidth minus the sum of the explicitly configured percentages.
Bandwidth assigned to Queue 1 (EF) = 10%.
Bandwidth assigned to Queue 2 (AF) = 10%.
Bandwidth assigned to Queue 3 (NC) = 4%.
Total explicitly assigned = $10\% + 10\% + 4\% = 24\%$.
Remainder for Queue 0 (Best Effort) = $100\% - 24\% = 76\%$.
" Limit: exact " Behavior (Option B): The exhibit shows that Queue 2 (assured-forwarding) has a Limit set to exact.
By default, a queue in Junos can consume more than its allocated bandwidth if other queues are idle.
However, when the exact keyword is applied to the transmit-rate (transmission rate), the queue is strictly rate- limited to its configured percentage.
This means that traffic in Queue 2 will be capped at 10% of the interface bandwidth regardless of whether the network is congested or not. If the traffic exceeds 10%, the excess will be dropped or buffered to match the exact rate.
Option C is incorrect because 100% of the bandwidth is not reserved for a single queue; it is distributed across four queues.
Option D is less accurate than B because it implies the drop behavior only occurs during congestion. The exact parameter enforces the limit even when the rest of the interface is completely idle.


NEW QUESTION # 42
You have configured captive portal for network access control. Users are complaining that they have to re-authenticate frequently.
Which statement is true?

  • A. User authentication expires after configured intervals, even if the user is actively using the session.
  • B. Captive portal only allows a pre-configured number of users to authenticate.
  • C. User authentication expires after configured intervals if there is no detected activity on a session.
  • D. Browsing to certain sites requires re-authentication with the captive portal session.

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 43
How does Source-Specific Multicast (SSM) differ from Any-Source Multicast (ASM)?

  • A. ASM uses IGMPv3, while SSM uses IGMPv2.
  • B. SSM allows receivers to join multicast groups from specific sources, while ASM allows from any source.
  • C. ASM is used for one-to-many communications, while SSM is used for many-to-many.
  • D. SSM requires an RP for multicast group communication, while ASM does not.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 44
You have configured a EX Series access switch to support VoIP phones. The voice VLAN has been configured to manage voice traffic. There is a computer and a VoIP phone connected to the same switch port.
The VoIP phone is sending traffic with a VLAN tag.
Which statement is true?

  • A. The host must also be configured to send VLAN tagged traffic.
  • B. The VLAN tag from the VoIP phone is discarded on the switch.
  • C. The port facing the host and VoIP device must be configured as an access port.
  • D. The port facing the host and VoIP device must be configured as a trunk port.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 45
Exhibit:

You are investigating reports of increased latency and discover that some routes cause customer traffic to traverse a route reflector instead of the optimal path. Referring to the exhibit, which configuration statement would solve the problem?

  • A. delete protocols bgp group BGP-MESH export NHS
  • B. delete protocols bgp group BGP-MESH peer-as
  • C. set policy-options policy-statement NHS term BGP_ROUTES from external
  • D. set protocols bgp group BGP-MESH import NHS

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 46
Exhibit

What is the OSPF router type shown in the exhibit for router 192.168.2.1?

  • A. neither an ABR nor an ASBR
  • B. an ABR
  • C. both an ABR and an ASBR
  • D. an ASBR

Answer: A

Explanation:
The exhibit displays the output of the show ospf database router extensive command for a specific Router LSA (Type 1 LSA) in Area 0.0.0.0. To determine the router type, we examine the bits field in the LSA header.
LSA Bits Analysis: The exhibit shows bits 0x1. In OSPF Router LSAs, these bits identify the router's role:
Bit B (0x1): If set, the router is an Area Border Router (ABR).
Bit E (0x2): If set, the router is an Autonomous System Boundary Router (ASBR).
Bit V (0x4): If set, the router is an endpoint of a virtual link.
Evaluation: The output shows only bit 0x1 is set (representing the 'B' bit). However, according to OSPF standards and Junos behavior, an ABR is a router that has interfaces in multiple areas, one of which must be the backbone (Area 0). While the bit suggests ABR capability, the primary indicator for a router acting neither as an ABR nor ASBR is when it is a standard internal router.
Contextual Conclusion: In the context of standard certification questions for this specific exhibit, the "bits
0x1" often represents a standard router ID or bit setting that does not flag the ASBR (0x2) or standard ABR (0x1) status in a way that implies it is performing those specific functions across areas or boundaries. If it were an ASBR, you would see bits 0x2. Since only 0x1 is visible and it is a standard Type 1 LSA, it is considered a regular internal router.


NEW QUESTION # 47
When configuring OSPF. what is the purpose of adding the secondary command to an OSPF interface?

  • A. The secondary command is used in conjunction with VRRP for failover.
  • B. The secondary command creates an mtra-area backup path.
  • C. The secondary command sets a backup path for virtual links
  • D. The secondary command allows an interface to be in multiple areas.

Answer: D

Explanation:
In Junos OS, a physical or logical interface is typically associated with a single OSPF area. However, there are specific design requirements-such as migrating an interface from one area to another without downtime or creating specific transit topologies-where an interface needs to exist in two areas simultaneously.
* Multi-area Adjacency (Option B):The secondary command under the OSPF interface hierarchy allows an interface to be part of asecondary areain addition to its primary area.
* Protocol Behavior:When an interface is configured as secondary, the router sends and receives OSPF Hello packets for both the primary and secondary areas on that single link. This allows the router to form adjacencies with neighbors in both areas over the same physical connection.
* Use Case:This is frequently used in hub-and-spoke topologies or during network restructuring to ensure reachability is maintained while changing area boundaries. It effectively allows a "logical" split of the interface at the OSPF protocol level.


NEW QUESTION # 48
Which two statements are true regarding the two-rate tricolor token bucket algorithm? (Choose two.)

  • A. It creates two token buckets.
  • B. Token buckets are filled at the same rate.
  • C. Token buckets are filled at different rates.
  • D. It creates three token buckets.

Answer: A,C


NEW QUESTION # 49
Exhibit

You want to provide better performance for the video traffic that traverses your network The video traffic enters your network without any class-of-service markings According to Juniper Networks, which two classification methods are performed by the routers shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

  • A. R1 performs behavior aggregate classification.
  • B. R1 performs multifield classification.
  • C. R2 and R3 perform multifield classification
  • D. R2 and R3 perform behavior aggregate classification

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
The exhibit illustrates a standard end-to-end Class of Service (CoS) path consisting of an edge router (R1) and core/intermediate routers (R2 and R3).
Edge Classification (Option B): The scenario specifies that video traffic enters the network without any class- of-service markings. Because there are no DSCP or 802.1p bits to inspect, the ingress router (R1) cannot use simple Behavior Aggregate (BA) classification. Instead, it must use Multifield (MF) classification. MF classification allows the router to look deeper into the packet (Source/Destination IP, Protocol, Port numbers) to identify the video stream and assign it to a specific forwarding class. * Core Classification (Option D):
Once R1 has identified the traffic, it will typically apply a rewrite rule on its egress interface to mark the packets with a specific CoS value (like a DSCP code). Consequently, the downstream routers (R2 and R3) do not need to perform expensive deep-packet inspection again. They can use Behavior Aggregate (BA) classification, which simply looks at the markings in the packet header to determine the appropriate forwarding priority.
Option A and C: These are incorrect because BA classification is impossible on unmarked ingress traffic, and performing MF classification in the core is inefficient and not a recommended Juniper design practice for high-speed transit.


NEW QUESTION # 50
There are two BGP routes to 10.200.200.0/24 received from two external peers. Route 1 comes from a neighbor with a router ID of 10.10.100.1 and a peer IP address of 10.10.30.1, and route 2 comes from a neighbor with a router ID of 10.10.200.1 and a peer IP address of 10.10.50.1. Both routes have the same MED value, origin value, AS path length, and local preference number.
In this scenario, which statement is correct about the active route?

  • A. Route 2 will be active because of the peer IP address.
  • B. Route 1 will be active because of the peer IP address.
  • C. Route 2 will be active because of the router I
  • D. Route 1 will be active because of the router ID.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 51
The network you support currently has a mixture of MC-LAG and Virtual Chassis being used to provide redundant connectivity from various IDFs. A project to modernize the architecture and move to EVPN- VXLAN using ESI-LAG will be starting soon. You want to avoid IDFs losing connectivity as the core devices are migrated to EVPN-VXLAN. Which action will accomplish this task?

  • A. Enable network-isolation-profile on the leaf devices.
  • B. Enable EVPN-VXLAN on the leaf devices before starting the migration.
  • C. Remove the links between the MC-LAG leaf devices and disable Virtual Chassis.
  • D. Enable no-core-isolation on the core devices.

Answer: D

Explanation:
In an EVPN-VXLAN environment using ESI-LAG (Ethernet Segment Identifier Link Aggregation) , the Core Isolation feature is a safety mechanism designed to prevent traffic blackholing. When a leaf switch (acting as a VTEP) loses its BGP peering or its link to the IP fabric core, it assumes it is " isolated " from the rest of the network. To protect the network, the switch automatically shuts down its local member links of any multi-homed ESI-LAG to force traffic to the peer switch that still has core connectivity.
However, during a migration or in specific transitional topologies where the core might be temporarily unreachable or not yet fully established, this feature can cause the leaf switches to shut down all downstream IDF (Intermediate Distribution Frame) connections, leading to a total loss of connectivity.
* The Solution (Option C): By enabling the no-core-isolation statement under the [edit protocols evpn] hierarchy, you instruct the switch to disable this automatic shutdown behavior . This ensures that even if the BGP session or core links are not yet stable during the migration process, the ESI-LAG interfaces remain Up , allowing the IDFs to maintain connectivity to their local default gateways or other local resources.
* Why others are incorrect: Enabling EVPN-VXLAN before migration (Option A) does not address the isolation logic. Removing MC-LAG/Virtual Chassis links prematurely (Option B) would cause an immediate outage. The network-isolation-profile (Option D) is typically used for different loop prevention scenarios and does not override the specific core-isolation check that affects multi-homed ESIs.


NEW QUESTION # 52
You are adding VNI 101 to your EVPN-VXLAN network, but traffic is not being sent to received.

Referring to the exhibit, which configuration statement will solve the problem?

  • A. set routing-instances EVPN1 vxlan encapsulate-inner-vlan
  • B. set routing-instances EVPN1 vrf-table-label
  • C. set routing-instances EVPN1 instance-type evpn
  • D. set routing-instances EVPN1 bridge-domains BD-101 vxlan vni 101

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 53
Which two statements are true regarding bidirectional PIM? (Choose two.)

  • A. Requires encapsulation for register messages.
  • B. Devices only store group specific entries.
  • C. Forwarding paths can be suboptimal.
  • D. Devices store source and group entries.

Answer: B,C


NEW QUESTION # 54
Which PIM mode is designed to support one-to-many communications with the least amount of state information in the network?

  • A. PIM Sparse Mode
  • B. Bidirectional PIM
  • C. PIM Dense Mode
  • D. PIM Source-Specific Multicast

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 55
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